Graduate Aptitude Test in Engineering (GATE): 2007

Friday, December 28, 2007

TOEFL : Scores

TOEFL : Scores
TOEFL : Scores Filed under: Test Of English as a Foreign Language : TOEFL
Receiving and Understanding Your Scores

Your TOEFL test payment entitles you to

i. one printed examinee’s score record

ii. up to four official score reports that ETS will send directly to the institutions or agencies you designate when registering for the test

Score recipients can be added or deleted online up until 10 p.m., Eastern Time (New York) on the day prior to the test date. ETS will send an examinee score record to you and official score reports to institutions 15 business days after you take the test. The printed score report that is mailed to you will contain all of the final section scores as well as your total score.

For the Internet-based test, you will receive four section scores and a total score:

i. Reading (0-30)
ii. Listening (0-30)
iii. Speaking (0-30)
iv. Writing (0-30)

v. Total Score (0-120)

In addition to numeric scores, your examinee score record also includes performance feedback that indicates your performance level and a description of the kinds of tasks that test takers within the reported range can typically do. Your scores are based on your performance on the questions in the test. You must answer at least one question in each Reading and Listening section, write at least one essay, and complete at least one Speaking task to receive an official score report.

Timeframe for Valid Scores

i. TOEFL scores are valid for two years from the test date.

ii. If it has been more than two years since you last took TOEFL, you must take it again to have scores reported.

Canceling TOEFL Scores

At the end of the test session, you are given the option to cancel your scores. Consider very carefully before canceling your scores. If you do cancel your scores, they will NOT be reported to you or any institutions, and no refund will be made.

If you cancel your scores, you may have them reinstated, provided that your request is received at ETS within 10 days of your test date.

You may reinstate your scores by contacting TOEFL� Services by

i. By Phone
1-877-863-3546 - United States, U.S. Territories,* and Canada
1-609-771-7100 - all other locations

ii. By Fax
1-609-771-7500

iii. By Mail

TOEFL Services
Educational Testing Service
PO Box 6151
Princeton, NJ 08541-6151 USA

The fee for reinstatement is $20. Your request should include your name

i. date of birth
ii. daytime phone number
iii. registration number
iv. payment (see Acceptable Forms of Payment).

Scores are reinstated and reported online about two weeks after your request is received. Your score report is mailed shortly thereafter.

*American Samoa, Guam, Puerto Rico, and the U.S. Virgin Islands

TOEFL : Registration

TOEFL : Registration
TOEFL : Registration Filed under: Test Of English as a Foreign Language : TOEFL
Register to take the TOEFL Internet-based test using one of the methods described below.

Online

The deadline to register online for a test is seven days before the test date.

For fastest and most convenient service, register online.

i. 24 hours a day, 7 days a week

ii. No phone call expenses or waiting on hold

iii. Instant e-mail confirmation

iv. A valid credit card is required (American Express, Discover, JCB, MasterCard, or VISA), or an electronic check (e-check) if you have a bank account in the United States or its territories.

By Phone

You must call at least seven days before the test date. Valid credit card required. Review the TOEFL iBT Registration Form for the information you will be asked to provide when you call.

Testing Location Phone
United States, Canada, or U.S. Territories* 1-800-GO-TOEFL (1-800-468-6335)
Outside the United States, Canada, or U.S. Territories* Call your Regional Registration Center
If you live outside the U.S. and want to test in the United States 1-443-751-4862
Text phone (must have access to a Teletypewriter (TTY) 1-800-529-3590

* American Samoa, Guam, Puerto Rico, and U.S. Virgin Islands

When registering by phone, you are given a

i. registration number, which you must bring to the test center on test day
ii. test date
iii. reporting time
iv. test center address.

By Mail

If you do not want to register online or by phone

i. Fill in all information on the Registration Form. (The form also is in the center of the Information and Registration Bulletin).

ii. Include payment (see Testing and Service Fees for preferred forms of payment).

iii. Mail the completed form. Mailing instructions are on the form.

iv. Registration forms must be received by ETS or your Regional Registration Center at least four weeks before your requested first-choice test date.

v. If your requested date(s) cannot be accommodated, you will be scheduled for the next available test date unless you indicate on the form that you do not want to be rescheduled. If you choose not to be rescheduled, your payment will be returned to you.

vi. You will be assigned a date as close as possible to your choices. If your assigned test date does not meet your needs, contact TOEFL Services or the appropriate Regional Registration Center within 24 hours of receipt of the confirmation of your registration.

vii. If you do not receive a registration confirmation, you must call the location where you mailed your registration at least three full business days prior to the registration deadline for your earliest choice.

viii. Test takers with disabilities must use the Registration Form. If you wish to pay by credit card, write your credit card number and expiration date at the top of the form. Only test takers with disabilities can submit this form using a credit card; all others must submit either a check or money order. See Test Takers with Disabilities for more information about testing accommodations.

TOEFL : Testing and Service Fees

TOEFL : Testing and Service Fees
TOEFL : Testing and Service Fees Filed under: Test Of English as a Foreign Language : TOEFL
Item Fees (as of July 1, 2005)
TOEFL Internet-Based Test
(includes 1 examinee score record and 4 score reports sent to institutions designated when you register) $140 (U.S.)
Rescheduling Fee $40 (U.S.)
Reinstatement of Canceled iBT Scores $20 (U.S.)
Additional Score Report Requests (per recipient) $17 (U.S.)
Fee for Returned Check $20 (U.S.)

Fees may change without notice. Taxes will be added where applicable. In Canada, add GST/HST (Reg. # 131414468RT), QST (Reg. # 1087967545).

Preferred Forms of Payment

i. Credit card (required for online registration) � American Express, Discover, JCB, MasterCard, or VISA

ii. Electronic check (e-check) � drawn on a U.S.-based bank

iii. Check in U.S. dollars or any other acceptable currency listed below, made payable to “ETS-TOEFL iBT.”

iv. Money order

Payment Policies

All payments must be

i. paid in full
ii. dated within 90 days of the date of receipt at the Regional Registration Center or ETS
iii. have the correct numeric and written dollar amount,
iv. have appropriate signature(s).

Services may be withheld for nonpayment of fees. If you do not submit the correct fee, your registration form or your request for service will be returned. Scores will not be released if a payment is returned for any reason.

Do not send cash or demand drafts. Receipts for bank checks are not acceptable. UNESCO coupons are not being accepted at this time. Unless an e-check is used, the actual negotiable check must be sent with your request for service.

Paying by Check or Money Order

i. Post-dated checks are not acceptable.

ii. Checks and money orders in U.S. dollars must be drawn on a bank in the U.S. and made payable to “ETS-TOEFL iBT.”

iii. Checks in Canadian dollars must be drawn on a bank in Canada at the prevailing rate of the U.S. dollar plus GST/HST/QST.

iv. The bank name and its address should be preprinted on the face of the check.

v. By sending your check, you are authorizing ETS to make a one-time electronic debit from your account for the amount of your check. No additional amount will be added. If you do not have sufficient funds in your account, an additional service fee of $20 (U.S.) will be debited electronically from your account.

Paying by Electronic Check (E-check)

i. Electronic checks (e-checks) may be used for online payment if you have a bank account in the United States or its territories. E-check payments are processed in U.S. dollars. Electronic Check Processing (ECP) directly debits your checking or savings account for payment of goods and services.

ii. To complete this type of payment, you must have available, or be able to provide, the basic bank account information located at the bottom of a check: bank account number, bank (or American Banking Association) routing and transit number, and check number. Please be aware that your bank account may be debited as soon as the same day we receive your request and that you will not receive a canceled check.

Acceptable Currencies

Checks, money orders, or Eurochecks must be drawn on a bank in the same country as the currency. For example, a check written in Danish kroners must be drawn on a bank in Denmark. Payments at the prevailing rate of the U.S. dollar may be remitted in the following currencies only:

Acceptable Currencies
Australian dollar British pound
Canadian dollar Danish kroner
Euro Hong Kong dollar
Japanese yen New Zealand dollar
Norwegian kroner Singapore dollar
Swedish kroner Swiss franc

You must submit payment in U.S. dollars, by credit card, or by using one of the acceptable currencies. Payments submitted in currencies other than those listed above will not be accepted and will be returned.

Refunds

Refunds will be made in U.S. dollars. If original payment was drawn on a U.S. domestic bank, allow 8 weeks after your cancellation for your refund to be processed. If original payment was made in non-U.S. funds drawn on a bank outside the U.S., allow 12 weeks for your refund to be processed. Services may be withheld for nonpayment of fees.

TOEFL : Test Pattern

TOEFL : Test Pattern
TOEFL : Test Pattern Filed under: Test Of English as a Foreign Language : TOEFL
The test consists of four sections:

1. Listening Comprehension

Objective: To test the candidate’s listening capabilites

Type of Questions: Conversations between two or more people in academic environments. Short conversations between students, and lectures may be possible conversations. Questions are basically of the who said what type.

Duration: 45-70 minutes

2. Structure

Objective: To check the candidate’s knowledge of English grammar.

Type of Questions: Identify the erroneous words(s) in the sentence. Fillup the blanks using the appropriate word.

Duration: 15-20 minutes

3. Reading Comprehension and Vocabulary

Objective: To test the candidate’s reading and vocabulary skills.

Type of Question: Three or four long passages, typically 300 words long are given, and questions based on the content, intent of the author, and ideas inferred from the passage. Generally prior knowledge of the subject under discussion is not necessary to come to the correct answer; though a priori knowledge may help.

Duration: 70-90 minutes

4. Essay Writing

Objective: To test the candidate’s writing skills

Type of Question: To write an essay on some general topic, and your position towards it. eg: “Is stem cell research necessary? Explain your stand?”

Duration: 30 minutes.

The test was first administered 1964 and has since been taken by nearly 20 million students. A revamped version of the test is slated for adoption in September 2005. This has been dubbed the Next Generation TOEFL and will include diagnostic reports on a student’s strengths and weaknesses.

Currently, the TOEFL does not include a test of speaking, although this will be introduced in 2005 when the TOEFL Academic Speaking Test (TAST) is integrated into the main TOEFL, replacing the current “Structure” section. Currently, a stand-alone TAST is available only as a practice test, which is taken using a telephone. With the upcoming retooled TOEFL, however, examinees will be asked to speak extemporaneously into a microphone; a digital recording of their speech will then be scored remotely. The purpose of the TAST is to assess a student’s ability to speak English clearly and fluently.

The IELTS (International English Language Testing System) is similar, but it emphasizes British English and Australian English. It is recognized primarily by Commonwealth universities and organizations, but also by many U.S. institutions.

H S N C‘s College of Management (HSNCB)

H S N C‘s College of Management (HSNCB)
H S N C‘s College of Management (HSNCB) Filed under: General Test Of English as a Foreign Language : TOEFL States Maharashtra
H S N C‘s College of Management (HSNCB)
Get the details about H S N C‘s College of Management (HSNCB). Sample Question Papers, Results, Date sheet, Syllabus of H S N C‘s College of Management (HSNCB). Know the Eligibility, Admission Procedure, Study Centers, Courses offered by H S N C‘s College of Management (HSNCB).
More about H S N C‘s College of Management (HSNCB).

Address: Smt C H M College Opp Ulhasnagar Station , Ulhasnagar , Maharashtra
Phone-No:
Fax:
Email:
Website:
Establish:

Course: MMS

Description: Master of Management Studies on Management Seats

Fee:

Eligibility: Indian Nationals/NRI/Foreign Citizens/PIO. Who have Basic qualifications prescribed byGovernment of Maharashtra Website:www.dte.org.in. The applicant must have appeared for CET conducted by the Government of Maharashtra for Post Graduate Degree in Management Studies.

How To Apply:
Applications for admission along with the Prospectus are available at the college on payment of Rs. 300/- in cash or Rs. 350/- by post to be remitted by D.D. in favor of Hyderabad (Sind) National Collegiate Board, payable at Mumbai.

Closing Date: 03 Sep 2005

For further details please contact on Tel. No. 0251 -3951485/0251-2552869 Rector & Secretary, HSNCB

GRE Sample Questions of Math (Quantitative) 2

GRE Sample Questions of Math (Quantitative) 2
GRE Sample Questions of Math (Quantitative) 2
Quantitative Section : Quantitative Ability

Directions:In this section you will be given two quantities, one in column A and one in column B. You are to determine a relationship between the two quantities and mark.

A. If the quantity in column A is greater than the quantity in column B.

B. If the quantity in column B is greater than the quantity in column A.

C. If the quantities are equal.

D. If the comparison cannot be determined from the information that is given.

1. A rectangle is 14 cm long and 10 cm wide. If the length is reduced by x cms and its width is increased also by x cms so as to make it a square then its area changes by :
A. 4
B. 144
C. 12
D. 2
E. None of the above.

Ans : A

2. A motorcycle stunts man belonging to a fair, rides over the vertical walls of a circular well at an average speed of 54 kph for 5 minutes. If the radius of the well is 5 meters then the distance traveled is:
A. 2.5 kms
B. 3.5 kms
C. 4.5 kms
D. 5.5 kms
E. None of the above

Ans : C

3. If 1 cm on a map corresponds to an actual distance of 40 kms. And the distance on the map between Bombay and Calcutta is 37.5 cms., the actual distance between them is :

A. 375 kms
B. 3750 kms
C. 1500 kms
D. 1375 kms
E. None of the above

Ans : C

4. A box contains 90 mts each of 100 gms and 100 bolts each of 150 gms. If the entire box weighs 35.5 kg., then the weight of the empty box is :

A. 10 kg
B. 10.5 kg
C. 11 kg
D. 11.5 kg
E. None of the above

Ans : D

5. If the radius of a circle is increased by 20% then the area is increased by :

A. 44%
B. 120%
C. 144%
D. 40%
E. None of the above

Ans : A

6. Tom, Dick and Harry went for lunch to a restaurant. Tom had $100 with him, Dick had $60 and Harry had $409. They got a bill for $104 and decided to give a tip of $16. They further decided to share the total expenses in the ratio of the amounts of money each carried. The amount of money which Tom paid more than what Harry paid is

A. 120
B. 200
C. 60
D. 24
E. 36

Ans : E

7. A plot of land is in the shape of a trapezium whose dimensions are given in the figure
below :

Image no. 1

Hence the perimeter of the field is
A. 50 m
B. 64 m
C. 72 m
D. 84 m
E. None of the above

Ans : c

8. Four concentric ( having the same center ) circles with radii, x, 2x, 3x and 4x are drawn to form two rings A and B as shown in the figure.

Image no. 2

Ratio of the area of inner ring A to the area of outer ring B is
A. 1 : 2
B. 1 : 4
C. 2 : 3
D. 3 : 7
E. None of the above

Ans : D

9. If 3/p = 6 and 3/q = 15 then p - q = ?

A. 1/3
B. 2/5
C. 3/10
D. 5/6
E. None of the above

Ans : C

10. A father is three times as old as his son. After fifteen years the father will be twice as old as his son’s age at that time. Hence the father’s present age is

A. 36
B. 42
C. 45
D. 48
E. None of the above

Ans : C

11. (1/4)3 + (3/4)3 + 3(1/4)(3/4)(1/4 + 3/4) =?

A. 1/64
B. 27/64
C. 49/64
D. 0
E. 1

Ans : E

12. If the area of two circles are in the ratio 169 : 196 then the ratio of their radii is

A. 10 : 11
B. 11 : 12
C. 12 : 13
D. 13 : 14
E. None of the above

Ans : D

13. A semi-circle is surmounted on the side of a square. The ratio of the area of the semi-circle to the area of the square is

Image no.3

A. 1 : 2
B. 2 : p
C. p : 8
D. 8 : p
E. None of the above

Ans : C

14.Which of the following is the greatest ?

A. 40% of 30
B. 3/5 of 25
C. 6.5% of 200
D. Five more than the square of 3
E. 1/2-4

Ans : E

15. Two identical taps fill 2/5 of a tank in 20 minutes. When one of the taps goes dry in how many minutes will the remaining one tap fill the rest of the tank ?

A. 5 minutes
B. 10 minutes
C. 15 minutes
D. 20 minutes
E. None of the above

Ans : C

16. If the value of XYZ Company stock drops from $25 per share to $21 per share, what is the percent of the decrease?

A. 4
B. 8
C. 12
D. 16
E. 20

Ans : D

17. If a building b feet high casts a shadow f feet long, then, at the same time of day, a tree t feet high will cast a shadow how many feet long?

A. ft/b
B. fb/t
C. b/ft
D. tb/f
E. t/fb

Ans : A

18. If x, y, and z are consecutive negative integers, and if x > y > z, which of the following must be a positive odd integer?

A. xyz
B. (x - y) (y - z)
C. x - yz
D. x(y + z)
E. x + y + z

Ans : B

19. At a certain ice cream parlor, customers can choose among five different ice cream flavors and can choose either a sugar cone or a waffle cone. Considering both ice cream flavor and cone type, how many distinct triple-scoop cones with three different ice cream flavors are available?

A. 12
B. 16
C. 20
D. 24
E. 30

Ans : C

20. What is the greatest value of a positive integer n such that 3n is a factor of 1815?

A. 15
B. 18
C. 30
D. 33
E. 45

Ans : C

21. If .2t = 2.2 - .6s and .5s = .2t + 1.1, then s =

A. 1
B. 3
C. 10
D. 11
E. 30

Ans : B

22. Five years ago, Beth’s age was three times that of Amy. Ten years ago, Beth’s age was one half that of Chelsea. If C repre- sents Chelsea’s current age, which of the following represents Amy’s current age?

A. c/6 + 5
B. 2c
C. (c-10)/3
D. 3c-5
E. 5c/3 - 10

Ans : A

23. A portion of $7200 is invested at a 4% annual return, while the remainder is invested at a 5% annual return. If the annual income from both portions is the same, what is the total income from the two investments?

A. $160
B. $320
C. $400
D. $720
E. $1,600

Ans : B

24. An empty swimming pool can be filled to capacity through an inlet pipe in 3 hours, and it can be completely drained by a drainpipe in 6 hours. If both pipes are fully open at the same time, in how many hours will the empty pool be filled to capacity?

A. 4
B. 4.5
C. 5
D. 5.5
E. 6

Ans : E

25. If r = (3p + q)/2 and s = p - q, for which of the following values of p would r2 = s2?

A. 1q/5
B. 10 - 3q/2
C. q - 1
D. 3q
E. 9q/2 - 9

Ans : A

26. At 10 a.m. two trains started traveling toward each other from stations 287 miles apart. They passed each other at 1:30 p.m. the same day. If the average speed of the faster train exceeded the average speed of the slower train by 6 miles per hour, which of the following represents the speed of the faster train, in miles per hour?

A. 38
B. 40
C. 44
D. 48
E. 50

Ans : C

27. On the xy-coordinate plane, points A and B both lie on the circumference of a circle whose center is O, and the length of AB equals the circle’s diameter. If the (x,y) coordinates of O are (2,1) and the (x,y) coordinates of B are (4,6), what are the (x,y) coordinates of A?

A. (3, 3/2)
B. (1, 2/2)
C. (0, -4)
D. (2/2, 1)
E. (-1, -2/2)

Ans : C

28. If a rectangle’s length and width are both doubled, by what percent is the rectangle’s area increased?

A. 50
B. 100
C. 200
D. 300
E. 400

Ans : D

29. A rectangular tank 10″ by 8″ by 4″ is filled with water. If all of the water is to be transferred to cube-shaped tanks, each one 3 inches on a side, how many of these smaller tanks are needed?

A. 9
B. 12
C. 16
D. 21
E. 39

Ans : B

30. Point Q lies at the center of the square base (ABCD) of the pyramid pictured above. The pyramid’s height (PQ) measures exactly one half the length of each edge of its base, and point E lies exactly halfway between C and D along one edge of the base. What is the ratio of the surface area of any of the pyramid’s four triangular faces to the surface area of the shaded triangle?

A. 3 :√2
B. √5:1
C. 4√3:3
D. 2√2:1
E. 8:√5

Ans : D

GRE Sample Questions of Math (Quantitative)

GRE Sample Questions of Math (Quantitative)
GRE Sample Questions of Math (Quantitative) Filed under: GRE
Quantitative Section : Quantitative Comparision

Directions:

In this section you will be given two quantities, one in column A and one in column B. You are to determine a relationship between the two quantities and mark.

A. If the quantity in column A is greater than the quantity in column B.

B. If the quantity in column B is greater than the quantity in column A.

C. If the quantities are equal.

D. If the comparison cannot be determined from the information that is given.

1. Quantity A: (-6)4
Quantity B: (-6)5

A. if the quantity A is greater;
B. if the quantity B is greater;
C. if the two quantities are equal;
D. if the relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

Ans : A

2. Quantity A: The number of months in 7 years
Quantity B: The number of days in 12 weeks

A. if the quantity in Column A is greater;
B. if the quantity in Column B is greater;
C. if the two quantities are equal;
D. if the relationship cannot be determined from the information given

Ans : C

3. Quantity A: 1-1/27
Quantity B: 8/9 + 1/81

A. if the quantity in is greater;
B. if the quantity in is greater;
C. if the two quantities are equal;
D. if the relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

Ans : A

4. r/>s/>0/>

Quantity A: rs/r
Quantity B: rs/s

A. if the quantity A is greater;
B. if the quantity B is greater;
C. if the two quantities are equal;
D. if the relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

Ans : B

5. Quantity A: 0.83
Quantity B: 0.81/3

A. Quantity B is greater
B. Relationship Indeterminate
C. Quantity A is greater
D. Quantity A equals Quantity B

Ans : A

6. t is a positive integer.
4/7 = t/s

Quantity A: s
Quantity B:7

A. if the quantity in Column A is greater;
B. if the quantity in Column B is greater;
C. if the two quantities are equal;
D. if the relationship cannot be determined from the information given

Ans : D

7. Quantity A: (0.82)2(0.82)3
Quantity B:(0.82)6

A. if the quantity in Column A is greater;
B. if the quantity in Column B is greater;
C. if the two quantities are equal;
D. if the relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

Ans : A

8. For all real numbers a, let a* = 1 - a.

Quantity A: ((-1)*)*
Quantity B: 2*

A. if the quantity in Column A is greater;
B. if the quantity in Column B is greater;
C. if the two quantities are equal;
D. if the relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

Ans : C

9. Quantity A: (x - 1)(x)(x + 1)
Quantity B:(x)(x)(x)

A. if the quantity in Column A is greater;
B. if the quantity in Column B is greater;
C. if the two quantities are equal;
D. if the relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

Ans : D

10. Quantity A: (3 x 4 x 17) / (121 x 100)
Quantity B: (4 x 5 x 19) / (1000 x 121)

A. Quantity A is greater
B. Quantity A equals Quantity B
C. Relationship Indeterminate
D. Quantity B is greater

Ans : A

11. Consider a triangle PQR.

Quantity A: length of PQ + length of QR
Quantity B: length of PR

A. Quantity A is greater
B. Quantity B is greater
C. Relationship Indeterminate
D. Quantity A equals Quantity B

Ans : A

12. Quantity A: (27 - 13) (296 + 534)
Quantity B: (27 + 13) (534 + 296)

A. Quantity B is greater
B. Quantity A equals Quantity B
C. Relationship Indeterminate
D. Quantity A is greater

Ans : D

13. Quantity A: A = 1.1
Quantity B: 12.11/2

A. Relationship Indeterminate
B. Quantity B is greater
C. Quantity A equals Quantity B
D. Quantity A is greater

Ans : B

14. 100 is greater then is greater then 200 and 100 is greater then z is greater then 210

Quantity A: y
Quantity B: z

A. Quantity A is greater
B. Quantity A equals Quantity B
C. Quantity B is greater
D. Relationship Indeterminate

Ans : D

15. y2 + z2 = 34 and yz = 15

Quantity A: y2 + 2yz + z2
Quantity B: (y + z)2

A. Quantity B is greater
B. Relationship Indeterminate
C. Quantity A is greater
D. Quantity A equals Quantity B

Ans : D

16. p > 0 > q

Quantity A: p + q
Quantity B: pq

A. The quantity in Column A is greater.
B. The quantity in Column B is greater.
C. The quantities are equal.
D. The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

Ans : D

17. Quantity A: The average (arithmetic mean) of x and y
Quantity B: The average (arithmetic mean) of x - 1 and y + 1

A. The quantity in Column A is greater.
B. The quantity in Column B is greater.
C. The quantities are equal.
D. The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

Ans : C

Image no.1

18. Diagram is illustrative and is not drawn to scale.
In triangle ABC, AB = AC and measure of angle 1 = 100o.

Quantity A: Measure of angle 2 + Measure of angle 3
Quantity B: 90o

A.Quantity B is greater
B.Quantity A equals Quantity B
C.Relationship Indeterminate
D. Quantity A is greater

Ans : A

Image no.2

19. Diagram is illustrative and is not drawn to scale.
In triangle ABC, AB = AC and measure of angle 1 = 100o.

Quantity A: Measure of angle 2 + Measure of angle 3
Quantity B: 90o

A. Quantity B is greater
B. Relationship Indeterminate
C. Quantity A is greater
D. Quantity A equals Quantity B

Ans : A

20. x and y are both positive and x/y > 5

Quantity A: 0.2x
Quantity B: y

A. Quantity A is greater
B. Quantity B is greater
C. Relationship Indeterminate
D. Quantity A equals Quantity B

Ans : A

21. Consider a rectangle. The length of its shorter side is 8, and the length of its diagonal is 16.

Quantity A: 30o
Quantity B: measure of angle formed by diagonal and shorter side

A. Relationship Indeterminate
B. Quantity A equals Quantity B
C. Quantity A is greater
D. Quantity B is greater

Ans : D

22.Consider a rectangle. The length of its shorter side is 8, and the length of its diagonal is 16.

Quantity A: 30o
Quantity B: measure of angle formed by diagonal and shorter side

A. Quantity A is greater
B. Quantity A equals Quantity B
C. Quantity B is greater
D. Relationship Indeterminate

Ans : C

23.The integer (x - 1) is a prime number between 40 and 50.

Quantity A: The sum of all different prime factors of x
Quantity B: 14

A. The quantity in Column A is greater.
B. The quantity in Column B is greater.
C. The quantities are equal.
D. The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

Ans : B

24. A < C
B > D > 0

Quantity A: A - B
Quantity B: C - D

A. The quantity in Column A is greater.
B. The quantity in Column B is greater.
C. The quantities are equal.
D. The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

Ans : B

25. In a particular jellybean jar, the number of red jellybeans exceeds the number of white ones by a ratio of 3:2. If two red jellybeans were removed, the ratio of red to white jellybeans would be 1:1.

Quantity A: The number of white jellybeans in the jar
Quantity B: 4

A. The quantity in Column A is greater.
B. The quantity in Column B is greater.
C. The quantities are equal.
D. The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

Ans : C

Image no.3

26. Diagram is illustrative and is not drawn to scale.
AB is the diameter of the circle.

Quantity A: Measure of angle 1
Quantity B: Measure of angle 2

A. Relationship Indeterminate
B. Quantity A is greater
C. Quantity B is greater
D. Quantity A equals Quantity B

Ans : D

Image no. 4

27. Diagram is illustrative and is not drawn to scale.

Quantity A: Measure of angle 1 + Measure of angle 3
Quantity B: Measure of angle 2 + Measure of angle 4

A. Relationship Indeterminate
B. Quantity A is greater
C. Quantity A equals Quantity B
D. Quantity B is greater

Ans : A

28. The sum of three consecutive even numbers is 18.

Quantity A: Their average
Quantity B: 6

A. Relationship Indeterminate
B. Quantity A is greater
C. Quantity A equals Quantity B
D. Quantity B is greater

Ans : C

29.x - y > 10

Quantity A: y - x
Quantity B: 12

A. Quantity B is greater
B. Quantity A is greater
C. Quantity A equals Quantity B
D. Relationship Indeterminate

Ans : A

30. x = 0, y > 0

Quantity A: xy
Quantity B: yx

A. Quantity A equals Quantity B
B. Quantity A is greater
C. Quantity B is greater
D. Relationship Indeterminate

Ans : C

Image no.5

31. Diagram is illustrative and is not drawn to scale.

Quantity A: Measure of angle 3 - Measure of angle 2
Quantity B: Measure of angle 5 - Measure of angle 6

A. Relationship Indeterminate
B. Quantity A equals Quantity B
C. Quantity B is greater
D. Quantity A is greater

Ans : B

Image no.6

32. Diagram is illustrative and is not drawn to scale.
Given AB = AC and angle BAC = 60o

Quantity A: Length of side AB
Quantity B: Length of side BC

A. Quantity A equals Quantity B
B. Quantity B is greater
C. Relationship Indeterminate
D. Quantity A is greater

Ans : A

Image no.7

33. Diagram is illustrative and is not drawn to scale.
Given angles 1 and 2 are equal, length of side AB = x, length of side BC = y, length of side AC = z.

Quantity A: x + y
Quantity B: y + z

A. Quantity B is greater
B. Quantity A equals Quantity B
C. Quantity A is greater
D. Relationship Indeterminate

Ans : B

34.x and y are both positive and x/y > 5

Quantity A: 0.2x
Quantity B: y

A. Quantity B is greater
B. Relationship Indeterminate
C. Quantity A equals Quantity B
D. Quantity A is greater

Ans : D

35. Quantity A: 29
Quantity B: 92

A. Quantity B is greater
B. Quantity A is greater
C. Relationship Indeterminate
D. Quantity A equals Quantity B

Ans : B

36. 0 < -x < 10
11 < -y < 20

Quantity B: y

A. Relationship Indeterminate
B. Quantity A equals Quantity B
C. Quantity B is greater
D. Quantity A is greater

Ans : D

Image no.8

37. Diagram is illustrative and is not drawn to scale.
Given angles 1 and 2 are equal, length of side AB = x, length of side BC = y, length of side AC = z.

Quantity A: x + y
Quantity B: y + z

A. Quantity A is greater
B. Quantity A equals Quantity B
C. Quantity B is greater
D. Relationship Indeterminate

Ans : B

38. y2 = 36

Quantity A: y
Quantity B: 6

A. Relationship Indeterminate
B. Quantity A is greater
C. Quantity B is greater
D. Quantity A equals Quantity B

Ans : A

Image no.9

39. Diagram is illustrative and is not drawn to scale.

Quantity A: Measure of angle 1 + Measure of angle 2 + Measure of angle 4
Quantity B: 180o

A. Relationship Indeterminate
B. Quantity A is greater
C. Quantity B is greater
D. Quantity A equals Quantity B

Ans : D

Image no.10

40. Diagram is illustrative and is not drawn to scale.
In triangle ABC, angle A = 60o and AB = AC.

Quantity A: Measure of angle 1 + Measure of angle 2
Quantity B: 120o

A. Relationship Indeterminate
B. Quantity A is greater
C. Quantity A equals Quantity B
D. Quantity B is greater

Ans : C

Image no.11

41. Diagram is illustrative and is not drawn to scale.

Quantity A: Measure of angle 2 + Measure of angle 3
Quantity B: 180o

A. Quantity B is greater
B. Quantity A is greater
C. Quantity A equals Quantity B
D. Relationship Indeterminate

Ans : C

42. Quantity A: (y + 5)2
Quantity B: (y - 5)2

A. Quantity B is greater
B. Relationship Indeterminate
C. Quantity A equals Quantity B
D. Quantity A is greater

Ans : B

43. Quantity A: (1/25)1/2 + (1/144)1/2
Quantity B: [(1/25) + (1/144)]1/2

A. Relationship Indeterminate
B. Quantity A is greater
C. Quantity B is greater
D. Quantity A equals Quantity B

Ans : A

44. y2 + z2 = 34 and yz = 15

Quantity A: y2 + 2yz + z2
Quantity B: (y + z)2

A. Quantity A is greater
B. Relationship Indeterminate
C. Quantity A equals Quantity B
D. Quantity B is greater

Ans : C

45. 100 < y < 200 and 100 < z < 210

Quantity A: y
Quantity B: z

A. Quantity A is greater
B. Quantity A equals Quantity B
C. Quantity B is greater
D. Relationship Indeterminate

Ans : D

46. Quantity A: (y + 5)2
Quantity B: (y - 5)2

A. Quantity A equals Quantity B
B. Quantity A is greater
C. Relationship Indeterminate
D. Quantity B is greater

Ans : C

47. yz < 0

Quantity A: (y - z)2
Quantity B: y2 + z2

A. Quantity A is greater
B. Quantity B is greater
C. Quantity A equals Quantity B
D. Relationship Indeterminate

Ans : A

48. For any positive integer n,n! is the product of all positive integers less than or equal to n.

Quantity A: 20! / 17!
Quantity B: 80! / 78!

A. Quantity A is greater
B. Quantity B is greater
C. Quantity A equals Quantity B
D. Relationship Indeterminate

Ans : A

49. 2 < z < 4

Quantity A: π2z3
Quantity B: π3z2

A. Quantity A is greater
B. Quantity B is greater
C. Quantity A equals Quantity B
D. Relationship Indeterminate

Ans : D

50. Amy, Beth and Charlie divided a pizza amongst themselves.
Amy took 30% of the pizza and ate (3/4) of what she took.
Beth took 20% of the pizza.
Charlie ate (2/5) of what he took.

Quantity A: The amount Amy ate
Quantity B: The amount Charlie ate

A. Quantity A is greater
B. Quantity B is greater
C. Quantity A equals Quantity B
D. Relationship Indeterminate

Ans : A

51. Quantity A: Time to travel 95 miles at 50 miles per hour
Quantity B: Time to travel 125 miles at 60 miles per hour

A. Quantity A is greater
B. Quantity A equals Quantity B
C. Quantity B is greater
D. Relationship Indeterminate

Ans : C

52. Quantity A: (9/13)2
Quantity B: (9/13)1/2

A. Quantity A equals Quantity B
B. Relationship Indeterminate
C. Quantity B is greater
D. Quantity A is greater

Ans : C

53. Quantity A: 4 / 100
Quantity B: 0.012 / 3

A. Quantity B is greater
B. Quantity A equals Quantity B
C. Quantity A is greater
D. Relationship Indeterminate

Ans : C

54. x = 2y + 3
y = -2

Quantity A: x
Quantity B: -1

A. if the quantity in Column A is greater;
B. if the quantity in Column B is greater;
C. if the two quantities are equal;
D. if the relationship cannot be determined from the information given

Ans : C

55. x + 2y > 8

Quantity A: 2x + 4y
Quantity B: 20

A. if the quantity in Column A is greater;
B. if the quantity in Column B is greater;
C. if the two quantities are equal;
D. if the relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

Ans : D

GRE Sample Questions of Verbal Sections : Antonyms

GRE Sample Questions of Verbal Sections : Antonyms
GRE Sample Questions of Verbal Sections : Antonyms Filed under: GRE
Directions: -

Each of the GRE sample antonyms questions consists of a word followed by five words or phrase as choices. Choose the word or phrase which is most nearly opposite in meaning to the word in capitals and shade the alphabets marked in the grid on your answer sheet.

Following are some GRE sample antonyms qustions.

1. ABOMINATE :

A. loathe
B. despise
C. adore
D. abhor
E. attach

Ans : C

2. OBSEQUIOUS :

A. servile
B. first
C. fawning
D. supercilious
E. improper

Ans : D

3. OROTUND :

A. not resonant
B. not reddish
C. not eager
D. pompous
E. loud

Ans : A

4. RECANT :

A. entangle
B. rescue
C. fail
D. assert
E. predict

Ans : D

5. UPBRAID :

A. defer
B. vacillate
C. sever
D. conjoin
E. laud

Ans : E

6. PERFIDY

A. tact
B. generosity
C. thoroughness
D. loyalty
Egratitude

Ans : D

7. OUTLANDISH

A. conventional
B. prolific
C. unchanging
D. transparent
E. noticeable

Ans : A

8. PLUMB

A. reversed
B. lofty
C. horizontal
D. thin
E. light

Ans : C

9. FERVID

A. undistinguished
B. unexpected
C. stubborn
D. restrained
E. discouraged

Ans : D

10. VACUITY

A .quality
B. certainty
C. plenitude
D. stability
E. incontinence

Ans : C

11. SQUALID

A. fervid
B. florid
C. pristine
D. extraneous
E. abundant

Ans : C

12. PLENITUDE :

A. luxury
B. magnificence
C. richness
D. contentment
E. scarcity

Ans : E

13. SCURRILOUS :

A.decent
B. savage
C. major
D. volatile
E. scabby

Ans : A

14. FULMINATION :

A. praise
B. repetition
C. escape
D. ratification
E. addition

Ans : A

15. DISTEND

A. deteriorate
B. weaken
C. constrict
D. concentrate
E. fold

Ans : C

16. TOUT

A. cast aspersions on
B. deny the relevance of
C. placate
D. withhold consent
E. misrepresent

Ans : E

17. SCOTCH

A. renovate
B. entrust
C. unfasten
D. encourage
E. emphasize

Ans : D

18. RAVEL

A. knit
B. omit
C. remain silent
D. measure
E .increase in value

Ans : A

19. PERSISTENCE

A. irrelevance
B. inconstancy
C. inequality
D. intemperance
E .incompetence.

Ans : B

20. SUBROSA

A. openly
B. fashionably
C. under the owse
D. simply
E. clandestinely

Ans : A

21. INVIDIOUS :

A. candid
B. stubborn
C. defensive
D. hostile
E. inoffensive

Ans : E

22. PUISSANCE :

A. strength
B. knowledge
C. liberality
D. skepticism
E. powerlessness

Ans : E

23. MANUMIT :

A. print
B. impress
C. enslave
D. fail
E. endeavor

Ans : D

24. GENUFLECT :

A. pronounce correctly
B. falsify
C. trick
D. stand erect
E. project

Ans : E

25. INNOCUOUS :

A. toxic
B. large
C. sober
D. impeccable
E. spotless

Ans : C

26. RAVEL :

A. increase in value
B. omit
C. remain silent
D. measure
E. knit

Ans : E

27. CALUMINATE :

A. vindicate
B. supplant
C. rejuvenate
D. follow
E. familiarize

Ans : A

28. TURPITUDE :

A. pragmatism
B. probity
C. judiciousness
D. animation
E. determinedness

Ans : B

29. INVECTIVE :

A. willing compliance
B. normality
C. restoration
D. fertility
E. laudatory words

Ans : E

30. OSSIFY :

A. reassemble fragments
B. overlook problems
C. create consensus
D. placate critics
E. transcend conventions

Ans : E

31. EXACERBATE

A. contemplate
B. bewilder
C. reward
D. better
E. horify

Ans : D

32. MYOPIC :

A. blind
B. moral
C. visionary
D. farsighted
E. glassy

Ans : C

33. NASCENT :

A. loyal
B. fading
C. unnamed
D. treacherous
E. reoccuring

Ans : C

34. LOLL :

A. describe exactly
B. insist strongly
C. comply readily
D. notice incidentally
E. move vigorously

Ans : E

35. TURBULENCE :

A. immunity
B. tranquility
C. meditation
D. moderation
E. co – ordination

Ans : E

36. BANAL :

A. inclined
B. faithful
C. elaborate
D. forced
E. arresting

Ans : C

37. EQUANIMITY

A. clamour
B. volume
C. disparity
D. agitation
E. caution

Ans : D

38. ANIMADVERSION

A. gullibility
B. precision
C. praise
D. sobriety
E. criticize

Ans : C

39. EXHUME

A. enter
B. fertilize
C. inter
D. decay
E. clarify

Ans : C

40. CALLOW

A. rustic
B. crude
C. exquisite
D. experienced
E .migratory

Ans : D

41. CUPIDITY

A. generosity
B. love
C. anxiety
D. entertainment
E .tragedy.

Ans : A

42. ANIMOSITY

A. parody
B. retardation
C. sincerity
D. refutation
E. canaraderie

Ans : B

43. EFFLUVIA :

A. controlled reactions
B. predictable results
C. important examples
D. descried products
E. relevant theories

Ans : C

44. COMMODIOUS

A. product
B. space
C. cramped
D. company
E. roomy.

Ans : E

45. EFFRONTERY

A. modesty
B. confrontation
C. avoidance
D. shamelessness
E. impudence

Ans : B

46. OBSTREPEROUS

A. noisy
B. defiant
C. permeable
D. quiet
E. stubborn

Ans : E

47. PACIFY

A. ameliorate
B. patchup
C. truce
D. tormented
E. agitated

Ans : C

48. AMBIGUOUS

A. confusing
B. lucid
C. desirous
D. obfuscate
E. pun

Ans : A

49. APPOSITE :

A. parallel
B. synonymous
C. hostile
D. inappropriate
E. vague

Ans : D

50. GRATUITOUS :

A. frank
B. pithy
C. warranted
D. frugal
E.ingenuous

Ans : A

51. PREFATORY :

A. intelligent
B. outstanding
C. predatory
D. conclusive
E. magnificent

Ans : E

52. OBLOQUY :

A. fame
B. name
C. inquiry
D. shame
E. collogue

Ans : D

53. INVETERATE

A. uninvited
B. illiterate
C. cumulative
D. beginning
E. incompetent

Ans : A

54. SATURNINE :

A. quick – wilted
B. genial
C. heavy – handed
D. distinguished
E. devout

Ans : E

55. PERSPICACIOUS :

A. Insufficiently precise
B. of indefinite duration
C. dull wilted
D. lacking intrinsic value
E. condemnatory

Ans : D

56. INCARCERATE :

A. summon
B. assist
C. liberate
D. anticipate
E. confide

Ans : C

57. PALTRY :

A. farm
B. scanty
C. excessive
D. friendly
E. benevolent

Ans : A

58. PENCHANT :

A. distaste
B. scabbard
C. agreement
D. earring
E. beginning

Ans : C

59. BALEFUL :

A. empty
B. tasty
C. gaudy
D. full
E. congenial

Ans : D

60. CURT :

A. contractual
B. precise
C. honest
D. voluble
E. peremptory

Ans : D

61. INVIDIOUS :

A. candid
B. stubborn
C. defensive
D. hostile
E. inoffensive

Ans : E

62. PUISSANCE :

A. strength
B. knowledge
C. liberality
D. skepticism
E. powerlessness

Ans : E

63. CONCILIATE :

A. arrive
B. appeal
C. retaliate
D. estrange
E. lie

Ans : B

64. SUBSERVIENT :

A. fawning
B. obsequious
C. miserly
D. omnipresent
E .haughty

Ans : C

65. VAUNTED :

A. berated
B. belittled
C. lauded
D. wicked
E. worried

Ans : C

66. QUOTA :

A. Anonymous remark
B. decisive action
C. debatable issue
D. unlimited number
E. irrelevant topic

Ans : D

67. CONTENTIOUS :

A. satisfied
B. pacific
C. hungry
D. bellicose
E. dissatisfied

Ans : D

68. MANUMIT :

A. print
B. impress
C. enslave
D. fail
E. endeavor

Ans : D

69. GENUFLECT :

A. pronounce correctly
B. falsify
C. trick
D. stand erect
E. project

Ans : E

70. INNOCUOUS :

A .toxic
B. large
C. sober
D. impeccable
E. spotless

Ans : C

71. BAROQUE :

A. rococo
B. simple
C. common
D. stupid
E. boat like

Ans : B

72. MACERATE :

A. cover by painting
B. assess by observing
C. harden by drying
D. influence by lying
E. cure by medicating

Ans : B

73. SKEPTICISM :

A .reason
B. conviction
C. plausibility
D. audricty
E. argument

Ans : D

74. IGNOMINIOUS :

A. scholarly
B. incognito
C. laudatory
D. disgraceful
E. erudite

Ans : B

75. CODA :

A. creflain
B. crescendo
C. prelude
D. improvisation
E . solo

Ans : A

76. PALTRY :

A. farm
B. scanty
C. excessive
D. friendly
E. benevolent

Ans : A

77. GERMINAL

A. sterilized
B. strategic
C. fully developed
D. primitive
E. excused .

Ans : D

78. GASCONADE

A. modesty
B. transparency
C. seizure
D. cleanliness
E. imposture

Ans : A

79. MIASMA

A. scenario
B. summing up
C. noxious fumes
D. fragrant aroma
E. benevolent

Ans : B

80. OPPORTUNIST

A. Man of principle
B. fatalist
C. fledgling
D. colleague
E. foe.

Ans : D

81. CENSURE

A. uncertainity
B. encomium
C. criticism
D. legal contual
E. matrimony

Ans : B

82. MILITANT

A .Dramatic
B. combative
C. religious
D. pacific
E. quaint.

Ans : D

83. MOTILITY :

A. static
B. tension
C. ascent
D. liquidity
E. vulnerability

Ans : A

84. SINUOUS :

A. wet
B. vacant
C. numerous
D. direct
E. round

Ans : D

85. INSOLVENCY :

A. ability to sustain growth
B. concentration
C. coherence
D. ability to pay one’s debts
E. compatibility

Ans : D

86. ANIMOSITY

A. parody
B. retardation
C. sincerity
D. refutation
E. canaraderie

Ans : E

87. INVETERATE

A .uninvited
B. illiterate
C. cumulative
D. beginning
E .incompetent

Ans : D

88. SCOTCH

A. renovate
B. encourage
C. entrust
D. ameliorate

Ans : B

89. PREDILECTION

A. ambiguity
B. unwillingness to choose
C. desire to please
D. propensity to dislike
E. stereotype

Ans : D

90. PLUMB :

A. reversed
B. horizontal
C. light
D. lofty
E. thin

Ans : B

91. SEGMENT:

A. inflate
B. affix
C. keep still
D.make whole
E. cleanse

Ans : D

92. PILLORY :

A. lament
B. foster
C. exalt
D. enjoy
E. forgive

Ans : C

93. CHOLERIC

A. good-natured
B. spoiled
C. irascible
D. immune
E. idiotic.

Ans : A

94. MACERATE :

A .cover by painting
B. assess by observing
C. harden by drying
D. influence by lying
E. cure by medicating

Ans : B

95. SKEPTICISM :

A. reason
B. conviction
C. plausibility
D. audricty
E. argument

Ans : D

96. IGNOMINIOUS :

A. scholarly
B. incognito
C. laudatory
D. disgraceful
E. erudite

Ans : B

97. CODA :

A .creflain
B. crescendo
C. prelude
D. improvisation
E. solo

Ans : A

98. UNTOWARD :

A .experienced
B. inevitable
C. industrious
D. straight forward
E. favourable

Ans : E

Frequestly Asked Questions of GRE

Frequestly Asked Questions of GRE
Frequestly Asked Questions of GRE Filed under: GRE
1. What is the format of the GRE General Test?
Answer :

The GRE General Test is a computer-adaptive test (CAT). The CAT is administered in an individualized environment in the quiet and privacy of separated testing stations at the GRE test center.

2. What is the content of the GRE General Test?
Answer :

The GRE General test measures verbal, quantitative, and analytical skills that have been acquired over a long period of time and that are not related to any specific field of study. The verbal section tests the ability to analyze and evaluate written material and synthesize information obtained from it, analyze relationships among component parts of sentences, and recognize relationships between words and concepts.

The quantitative section tests basic mathematical skills and understanding of elementary mathematical concepts, as well as the ability to reason quantitatively and solve problems in a quantitative setting.

The analytical section tests the ability to understand structured sets of relationships, deduce new information from sets of relationships, analyze and evaluate arguments, identify central issues and hypotheses, draw sound inferences, and identify plausible causal explanations.

3. When is the GRE General Test held and what are the registration deadlines?
Answer :

There is no fixed testing schedule for the GRE General Test. As testing is conducted on an individual basis, test candidates may schedule a testing appointment at their convenience, up to three business days before their requested test date if registering by phone.

4. How do I register for the GRE General Test?
Answer :

You may obtain a registration form and bulletin of information from IIE. Registration can be completed by phone, fax, or mail, by contacting the Regional Registration Center, which, for testing in Hong Kong, is located in Malaysia. After registering you will receive a confirmation of the testing date, time, and test center location.

5. How much does it cost to take GRE General Test?
Answer :

GRE General Test Fee: US$175

6. What is the format of the GRE General Test?
Answer :

Educational Testing Services (ETS) will deliver GRE in 2 parts, beginning July 1, 2003. The Analytical Writing measure will be delivered on computer through ETS’s computer-based testing (CBT) network. The Verbal and Quantitative measures will be delivered in paper-based format. This is known as the GRE Split Test Administration. Test takers must take the Analytical Writing first, the paper-based Verbal and Quantitative test second. To obtain General Test scores, test takers have to take both test between July 1, 2003 and June 30, 2004.

7. What is the content of the GRE General Test ?
Answer :

The GRE General Test consists of 2 papers: Computer-based analytical writing session which takes 2 hours. Paper-based Verbal and Quantitative session which takes 2 hours and 30 minuntes.

8. When is the GRE Analytical Writing Test?
Answer :

There is no fixed testing schedule for the CBT Analytical Writing section. As testing is conducted on an individual basis, test candidates may schedule a testing appointment at their convenience, up to three business days before their requested test date if registering by phone. Test takers must complete the CBT Analytical Writing section at least 6 weeks before taking the paper-based Verbal & Quantitative section.

9. How do I register for the GRE General Test?
Answer :

You may obtain a registration form and bulletin of information from IIE. Registration can be completed by phone, fax, or mail, by contacting the Regional Registration Center, which, for testing in Hong Kong, is located in Malaysia. After registering you will receive a confirmation of the testing date, time, and test center location.

10. What is the format of the GRE Subject Tests?
Answer :

The GRE Subject Tests are pencil-and-paper tests, consisting of multiple-choice and free-response questions, depending on the individual test.

GRE Score

GRE Score
GRE Score Filed under: GRE
GRE score is calculated as follows

i. Total number of questions answered

ii. Number of questions answered correctly

iii. Difficulty level of questions answered

iv. Two people who complete test and have same number of correct responses - person who answers more difficult questions generally receives higher score

Syllabus of GRE

Syllabus of GRE
Syllabus of GRE Filed under: GRE
The first two sections of the GRE test are Analytical Writing sections. The duration of the two tasks to be completed as part of the Analytical Writing section lasts 75 minutes (1 hour and 15 minutes).

The objective type questions in the GRE test starts from the third section. The third section is a 30 minutes - 30 questions verbal section and the fourth section is a 45 minutes - 28 questions Quantitative section.

The GRE Verbal section comprises about 6 Sentence Completion questions, 7 Analogy questions, 8 Reading Comprehension questions and 9 Antonym questions. You will have 30 minutes to answer these 30 questions. Please remember as GRE is a computer adaptive test, you will not be allowed to skip a question or come back to the previous question. Take a lot of care before you mark an answer.

The Quantitative section of the GRE test comprises 28 questions. About 14 of these questions are problem solving questions while the other 14 are quantitative comparison questions. Data analysis questions also form a part of the quantitative section of the GRE test. You will have a total of 45 minutes to answer these 28 questions.

GRE Analytical Writing Ability

This section replaced the multiple choice Analytical Reasoning section on October 1, 2002. It tests the ability to analyse issues as well as the writing ability through 2 essays. Watch this space for forthcoming material on preparing for these essays.

MATS School of Business Admission 2007

MATS School of Business Admission 2007
MATS School of Business Admission 2007 Filed under: General GRE GATE GMAT Common Admission Test - (CAT) Xaviers Admission Test - (XAT) Management Aptitude Test - (MAT) AIMS Test for Management Admission - (ATMA) Graduate Management Admission Test - (GMAT) Karnataka Management Aptitude Test - (K-MAT) Admission in Management
MATS School of Business Admission 2007

Bangalore

Invites applications for admission to its Post-graduate Programme in Business Management (International Business).

The two-year full time programme offers dual specialisation in the following areas:
Finance
Marketing
Human Resource Management
Super specialisation in International Business

Eligibility

You must be a graduate in any discipline from a recognised university.
You could be a final year student awaiting your result.
Selection method

You will be shortlisted on the basis of your performance in the written test.
Shortlisted candidates will be invited to participate in a group discussion followed by a personal interview.

Note: Students applying on the basis of CAT, ATMA, MAT, GMAT, KMAT, XAT, GATE, GRE or equivalent scores may be exempted from written test and IT Aptitude Test

How to apply

For more details and application forms, send a mail to enquiry@mats.ac.in, matsacademy@vsnl.net.
You may also download the application form by visiting http://www.mats.ac.in/.

Address
MATS School of Business
MATS Tower, 319
17th Cross, 25th Main
6th Phase, JP Nagar
Bangalore – 560 078
Phone: (080) 26532728
E-mail: enquiry@mats.ac.in, matsacademy@vsnl.net
Web site: http://www.mats.ac.in/

Saturday, December 15, 2007

GATE QUESTION PAPER STRUCTURE

QUESTION PAPER STRUCTURE

The question paper of GATE 2007 will be fully objective type.
Candidates have to mark the correct choice by darkening the appropriate bubble against each question on an Objective Response Sheet (ORS).

Main Papers (Non-XE/XL Papers)

The question paper will be for a total of 150 marks divided into three groups:

Group I : Question Numbers 1 to 20 (20 questions) will carry one mark each (subtotal 20 marks) .

Group II: Question Numbers 21 to 75 (55 questions) will carry two marks each (subtotal 110 marks). Out of this, Q.71 to Q.75 may be questions based on common data .

Group III: Question Numbers 76 to 85 (10 questions) will carry two marks each (subtotal 20 marks). These questions are called linked answer questions. These 10 questions comprise five pairs of questions (76 & 77, 78 & 79, etc.). The solution to the second question of each pair (e.g. Q.77) will be linked to the correct answer to the first one (e.g. Q.76) in the pair.

Each question will have four choices for the answer. Only one choice is correct.

Wrong answers carry 25% negative marks. In Q.1 to Q.20, 0.25 mark will be deducted for each wrong answer and in Q.21 to Q.76, Q.78, Q.80, Q.82 and Q.84, 0.5 mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. However, there is no negative marking in Q.77, Q.79, Q.81, Q.83 and Q.85.

Papers bearing the code AE, AG, CE, CH, CS, EC, EE, IN, IT, ME, MN, MT, PI, TF will contain questions on Engineering Mathematics to the extent of 20 to 25 marks.

The multiple choice objective test questions can be of the following type:

Each choice containing a single stand-alone statement/phrase/data.

Example

Q. The phenomenon known as ?Early Effect? in a bipolar transistor refers to a reduction of the effective base-width caused by

A) electron-hole recombination at the base

the reverse biasing of the base-collector junction
the forward biasing of emitter-base junction
the early removal of stored base charge during saturation-to-cutoff switching

Each choice containing a combination of option codes.

The question may be accompanied by four options P, Q, R, S and the choices may be a combination of these options. The candidate has to choose the right combination as the correct answer.

Example

Q. Choose the correct combination of true statements from the following:

P : The ratio of isentropic to isothermal bulk modulus for a gas is equal to its specific heat ratio (C P/C V)
Q : The viscosity of gas is an increasing function of temperature
R : The viscosity of a gas is a decreasing function of temperature
S : The compressibility co-efficient of a gas decreases with increase in Mach number

(A) Q, S (B) R, S (C) P, S (D) P, Q

Assertion[a]/Reason[r] type with the choices stating if [a]/[r] are True/False and/or stating if [r] is correct/incorrect reasoning of [a]

Example

Q. Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following assertion and reasoning:

Assertion [a]: Bernoulli's equation can be applied along the central streamline in a steady laminar fully-developed flow through a straight circular pipe.

Reason [r]: The shear stress is zero at the centre-line for the above flow.

(A) Both [a] and [r] are true and [r] is the correct reason for [a]
(B) Both [a] and [r] are true but [r] is not the correct reason for [a]
(C) Both [a] and [r] are false
(D) [a] is false but [r] is true

Match items : Match all items in Group 1 with correct options from those given in Group 2 and choose the correct set of combinations from the choices E, F, G and H.

Example

Q. Find the correct match between Group 1 and Group 2

Group 1 Group 2

E- Varactor diode 1- Voltage reference
F- PIN diode 2- High-frequency switch
G- Zener diode 3- Tuned circuits
H- Schottky diode 4- Current controlled attenuator

(A) E-4, F-2, G-1, H-3 (B) E-2, F-4, G-1, H-3
(C) E-3, F-4, G-1, H-2 (D) E-1, F-3, G-2, H-4

Common data questions : Multiple questions may be linked to a common problem data, passage and the like. Two or three questions can be formed from the given common problem data. Each question is independent and its solution obtainable from the above problem data/passage directly. (Answer of the previous question is not required to solve the next question). Each question under this group will carry two marks.

Example

Common Data for Questions 74 & 75 :

KMnO 4 reacts with oxalic acid in the presence of excess H 2 SO 4 to yield a manganese complex X which is colorless in dilute solutions and pale pink in the crystalline form [atomic number of manganese is 25] .

Q.74 The number of unpaired electrons present in the complex X is

(A) 1 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5

Q.75 The calculated spin only magnetic moment for the compound X is

(A) 5.92 BM (B) 4.90 BM (C) 3.87 BM (D) 1.73 BM

Linked answer questions : These questions are of problem solving type. A problem statement is followed by two questions based on the problem statement. The two questions are to be designed such that the solution to the second question depends upon the answer to the first one. In other words, the first answer is an intermediate step in working out the second answer. Each question in such ?linked answer questions' will carry two marks.

Example

Statement for Linked Answer Questions 82 & 83:

Consider a unity-gain feedback control system whose open-loop transfer function is

Q.82 The value of ?a? so that the system has a phase-margin equal to is approximately equal to

(A) 2.40 (B) 1.40 (C) 0.84 (D) 0.74

Q.83 With the value of ?a? set for a phase-margin of , the value of unit-impulse response of the open-loop system at t=1 second is equal to

(A) 3.40 (B) 2.40 (C) 1.84 (D) 1.74

XE/XL Papers

XE and XL papers contain a number of sections as given under Structure of GATE. Each Section is of 50 marks. Each Section will be fully objective type and the questions are divided into three groups.
Group I: Question Numbers 1 to 6 (6 questions) will carry one mark each (subtotal 6 marks).
Group II: Question Numbers 7 to 24 (18 questions) will carry two marks each (subtotal 36 marks). Out of this, Q.23 and Q.24 may be questions based on common data.
Group III: Question Numbers 25 to 28 (4 questions) will carry two marks each. These questions are called linked answer questions. These 4 questions comprise two pairs of questions (25 & 26 and 27 & 2. The solution to the second question of each pair (e.g. Q.26) will be linked to the correct answer to the first one (e.g. Q.25) in the pair (subtotal 8 marks).

All questions have four choices with only one being correct.

Wrong answers carry 25% negative marks. In Q.1 to Q.6 of each section, 0.25 mark will be deducted for each wrong answer and in Q.7 to Q.25 and Q.27, 0.5 mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. However, there is no negative marking in Q.26 and Q.28.

The pattern of multiple-choice questions is the same as in the Main papers.

GATE QUESTION PAPER STRUCTURE

GATE Examination Details

The examination is a single paper of 3 hours duration and generally consists of
Section A (Objective Type) which is of 75 marks and
Section B (Problem Type) which is of 75 marks.
Total: 150 marks.

You have to opt for your subject and study as per the syllabus mentioned in the GATE brochure.

The subjects of our interest are Computer Science and Engineering, Electronics & Communication Engineering., Electrical Engineering and Instrumentation Engineering. Other subjects are also available such as Mathematics, Physics, etc

Generally a large number of students appear for the Computer Science subject in order to do a M.Tech in Computer Science.

Old question papers are available in the shops.

After publication of GATE results, students must apply to individual Institutes to get their application forms.

Institutes advertise M.Tech admissions in leading newspapers from 1st April till end July. However some Institutes do not advertise and therefore students have to get the forms themselves.

In the application forms, you have to mention your GATE score alongwith other details.

The concerned Institute may conduct written test and/or interview for the purpose of admission.

Results of qualified candidates in GATE will give All India Rank and indicate percentile score. For example, a percentile score of 99 means you are in the top 1% category of the candidates who appeared for GATE.

Candidates who get less than 70 percentile get no score card.

GATE scores are valid for 2 years. You may reappear the GATE exam if you are not satisfied with the earlier score and the new score (if better than the old one) will be used for admission purposes.

What is GATE ?

What is GATE ?
The Graduate Aptitude Test in Engineering (GATE) is an all -India Examination conducted by the six Indian Institutes of Technology and Indian Institute of Science, Bangalore, on behalf of the National Coordinating Board - GATE, Ministry of Human Resources Development (MHRD), Government of India.From Freshersworld point of view we have tried our best to give you a clear picture of GATE.

Objective

To identify meritorious and motivated candidates for admission to Post Graduate Programmes in Engineering, Technology, Architecture and Pharmacy at the National level. To serve as benchmark for normalisation of the Undergraduate Engineering Education in the country.

Here is an opportunity for advanced engineering education in India. An M.E or M.Tech degree is a desirable qualification for our young engineers seeking a rewarding professional career. Engineering students, while in the final year of their degree course, spend considerable time in seeking an opening for studies in foreign universities.

GATE Scorecard

Every qualified candidate will receive an original GATE Scorecard valid for two years . Additional Scorecards (up to a maximum of two) will be issued only once on request and on payment of Rs 300 per card. Such requests should reach the Organizing Chairman, GATE 2007, Indian Institute of Technology Kanpur , Kanpur 208016 before August 31, 2007 together with a bank draft in favour of Chairman GATE, IIT Kanpur, payable at Kanpur . These cards will be labelled as Additional Scorecard -1 and Additional Scorecard - 2 at the top. However, if the candidate changes his/her admitting institution by using the additional scorecard(s), he/she is required to clarify the matters related to his/her admission and Scholarship/Assistantship with the new institution where subsequent admission change is sought.

Scorecard will be sent only to the qualified candidates. No information will be sent to candidates who are not qualified.

The GATE Scorecard is a valuable document.

The Scorecard cannot be treated as a proof of date of birth, category and disability status.

The Scorecard will indicate GATE Score and Rank of the Qualified Candidates.

GATE Score

The GATE Score of a candidate is in the range 0 to 1000. It reflects the performance of a candidate, irrespective of the GATE paper or year in which he/she has qualified. Candidates with same GATE Score from different GATE papers and/or years can be considered to have the same performance level.

The marks obtained by the candidate is normalized on the basis of the average and standard deviation of marks of all candidates who appeared in the paper mentioned on the scorecard in GATE 2007. Subsequently, this is scaled with respect to the global average and global standard deviation so as to facilitate performance comparison across GATE papers and over a block of years since GATE 2004.

GATE SCORE =

Where

m = marks obtained by the candidate.

a = average of marks of all candidates who appeared in the paper mentioned on this scorecard in GATE 2007

s = standard deviation of marks of all candidates who appeared in the paper mentioned on this scorecard in GATE 2007

= global average of marks of all candidates who appeared across all papers and years (2004-2007)

= global standard deviation of marks of all candidates who appeared across all papers and years (2004-2007)

The Maximum Score can be 1000.

GATE Score Range Ability Level
800 to 1000 Outstanding
675 to 800 Excellent
550 to 675 Very good
425 to 550 Good
300 to 425 Above average
100 to 300 Average
Below 100 Below average

The evaluation of the ORS is carried out by a computerized process using scanning machines, with utmost care. Requests for revaluation of the answer script and re-totaling of marks will not be entertained.

The GATE result and particulars of the qualified candidates will be made available to interested organizations (educational institutions, R & D laboratories, industries, etc.) in India and abroad based on written request by the organization and on payment. Details can be obtained from GATE Chairmen of IITs/IISc.

GRE / TOEFL Study Material

Download a speaking software to enhance your verbal skills!!

Read Detailed Article »
Speed Reading Course!!
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Reading is an unavoidable exercise in almost every prestigious examination. Increase your reading speed with the help of few quick Tips ‘n’ Tricks present in our e-book on Reading Speed!!

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Word Smart!!
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Here is a real treat for all MBA/ GRE/ TOEFL Aspirants!! Get an mp3 file of 24 minutes, to learn the wordlist………sounds crazy?? Believe me people……..this is something all of you have been looking for a looooong time. Don’t waste time now…………..just check it out!!

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Audio Wordlist Part 2!!
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After getting a great response for our 1st part of the audio wordlist, we present before you Audio wordlist part2. It is an mp3 file, useful in improving your vocab!!

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Audio Wordlist Part 3!!
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Popular demand of the audio wordlist has finally led us to come up with the THIRD version of the same……..containing different words along with their meaning in mp3 format!!

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Hitlist of Important Words - Part 1
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Here is a hitlist of important words one must be aware of for any important examination.

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Hitlist of Important Words - Part 2
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Here is another part of hitlist of important words one must be aware of for any important examination.

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TOEFL EXAM SUCCESS
Posted in Overview, Study Material, Tips N Tricks

This is an E-Book containing A-Z of TOEFL. It not only discusses the sections involved in the exam, but also throws light on the variety of questions asked along with HUGE number of tips & tricks to crack the exam. Download the e-book absolutely free of cost!!

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Hitlist of Important Words - Part 3
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Here is the third part of hitlist of important words one must be aware of for any important examination.

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Hitlist of Important Words - Part 4
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Here is the last part of hitlist of words you always wanted to have………Happy learning!!

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Sorted Barron!!
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Here is a sorted list of words by Barron. Download the list & apprise yourself with the required details!!

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Phrases & Paraphrases Tips
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A few Tips ‘n’ Tricks for attempting the RC Section.

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Listening Section Tips
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Gives an idea of the listening section and some of the tips which are required in order to solve them in the best possible manner!!

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TOEFL Prep Classes - (India)
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Details of Preparation Classes for TOEFL in India.

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Essay Writing for the TOEFL
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Importance of Essay Writing in TOEFL and a few Tips ‘n’ Tricks to handle it !!

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Source: http://www.koolkareers.com/toefl/category/study-material/page/2/

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GRE Word power

Latin root ag, act means to do, perform actions, drive.e.g - agenda, agile, enact, agent.Agenda - listof things to be done, to be discussed or decided upon.The agenda for the meeting is as follows....Agile - active, able to move quickly and easily.as agile as a monkeyEnact - perform (a part, play etc) on, make or pass (a decree)Drama enacted by childrenRecently a new bill was enacted by the Parliament.Agent - a person who acts for or manages the affairs of, other people in business, politics etc.a travel agent

Mtech / ME GATE PG Programs

POSTGRADUATE ADMISSIONS WITH MHRD SCHOLARSHIPA candidate is eligible for Ministry of Human Resource Development (MHRD) Scholarship/ Assistantship in Engineering/Technology/Architecture/Pharmacy/Sciences at engineering colleges/institutes in the country if he/she qualifies in GATE . To avail the scholarship, additionally, the candidate must secure admission to such a postgraduate programme, as per the prevailing procedure of the admitting institution. GATE qualification by itself does not guarantee admission. GATE qualified candidates in Engineering disciplines are also eligible for the award of the Junior Research Fellowship in CSIR Laboratories. Some government organizations prescribe GATE qualification as a requirement for applying to the post of a Scientist/Engineer.As per the directives of the Ministry of Human Resource Development (MHRD), Govt. of India, the following procedure is to be adopted for admission to postgraduate programmes (Master's and Doctoral) with MHRD Scholarship

GRE Books

Books for GRE
Q: It would be very helpful if you could throw some light on what are the must / best books for the GRE? Is there any Big book for the GRE?

The standard books which have worked well for many people are the Barron’s, Arco’s, Princeton Review and Kaplan. Big Book is now out of publish but a good resource in case you can get an old copy for yourself. PowerPrep is an original compilation of GRE tests by ETS, a good resource.
www.majortests.com is a good Web site for free GRE questions.

Going to USA via GRE for USMLE?

Q: Is it a right way to go to USA through GRE and then clear MLE?
With PLAB becoming tougher and tougher with each day passing, I think many medicos like me who want to be abroad would like to change their mind to something impossible called MLE. Wouldn’t it be a right option to get through GRE first and then shift to MLE?

Going to the US first through GRE and then writing USMLE is now becoming pretty popular. It is a way out. Having said that the competition would still be the same, it will not decrease. USMLE would still be as tough or as easy. However if you are desperate and you feel that you will have access to better facilities to prepare for USMLE then go first with GRE then prepare for USMLE. If you are serious, focused and have access to material in your home country then writing your USMLE now is a better option. Why spend extra money on GRE and waste 1-2 years?

GATE Exam Result Fees Details

Overview for GATE

Many students may not be aware that there are several institutions in this country, offering specialized postgraduate programmes in various disciplines. Attractive scholarship / Assistantship for postgraduate courses in engineering / Technology? Architecture /Pharmacy at Engineering colleges / institutes in the country ,are available to those who qualify through GATE. Some Engineering colleges / institutes specify GATE as a mandatory qualification even for admission do students to post graduate programmes. The candidate is required to find the procedure of final selection and award of scholarship / Assistantship from the respective Institution to which the candidate seeks admission. GATE qualified candidates in Engineering subjects) will also be eligible for the award of junior research fellowship in CSIR Laboratories.
What is GATE ?

The Graduate Aptitude Test in Engineering (GATE) is an all -India Examination conducted by the six Indian Institutes of Technology and Indian Institute of Science, Bangalore, on behalf of the National Coordinating Board - GATE, Ministry of Human Resources Development (MHRD), Government of India.From Freshersworld point of view we have tried our best to give you a clear picture of GATE.

Objective

To identify meritorious and motivated candidates for admission to Post Graduate Programmes in Engineering, Technology, Architecture and Pharmacy at the National level. To serve as benchmark for normalisation of the Undergraduate Engineering Education in the country.

Here is an opportunity for advanced engineering education in India. An M.E or M.Tech degree is a desirable qualification for our young engineers seeking a rewarding professional career. Engineering students, while in the final year of their degree course, spend considerable time in seeking an opening for studies in foreign universities.

GateGenie Help Desk

Graduate Aptitude Test in Engineering(GATE) is an All-India Examination conducted by the seven Indian Institutes of Technology(IIT) and the Indian Institute of Science(IISc), Bangalore, on behalf of the National Coordinating Board - GATE, Department of Education, Ministry of Human Resources Development (MHRD), Government of India. Every year one of the IIT or IISc act as a coordinating institution.

The following is list of GATE coordinating IIT/IISc.

GATE Conducting IIT/IISc
GATE 2007 IIT Kharagpur
GATE 2005 IIT Bombay
GATE 2004 IIT Delhi
GATE 2003 IIT Madras
GATE 2002 IISc Banglore
GATE 2001 IIT Kanpur
GATE 2000 IIT Kharagpur
GATE 1999 IIT Bombay

Examination Details:

1.

The examination is a single paper of 3 hours duration and generally consists of
Section A (Objective Type) which is of 75 marks and
Section B (Problem Type) which is of 75 marks.
Total: 150 marks.
2.

You have to opt for your subject and study as per the syllabus mentioned in the GATE brochure.
3.

The subjects of our interest are Computer Science and Engineering, Electronics & Communication Engineering., Electrical Engineering and Instrumentation Engineering. Other subjects are also available such as Mathematics, Physics, etc
4.

Generally a large number of students appear for the Computer Science subject in order to do a M.Tech in Computer Science.
5.

Old question papers are available in the shops.
6.

After publication of GATE results, students must apply to individual Institutes to get their application forms.
7.

Institutes advertise M.Tech admissions in leading newspapers from 1st April till end July. However some Institutes do not advertise and therefore students have to get the forms themselves.
8.

In the application forms, you have to mention your GATE score alongwith other details.
9.

The concerned Institute may conduct written test and/or interview for the purpose of admission.
10.

Results of qualified candidates in GATE will give All India Rank and indicate percentile score. For example, a percentile score of 99 means you are in the top 1% category of the candidates who appeared for GATE.
11.

Candidates who get less than 70 percentile get no score card.
12.

GATE scores are valid for 2 years. You may reappear the GATE exam if you are not satisfied with the earlier score and the new score (if better than the old one) will be used for admission purposes.

TOEFL Formats and contents

The computer-based test (CBT), divided into four sections, measures language proficiency in listening, structure (grammar), reading and writing.

1. Listening Comprehension
* Objective: To test the candidate's listening capabilities
* Type of Questions: Conversations between two or more people in academic environments. Short conversations between students, and lectures may be possible conversations. Questions are basically of the who said what type.
* Duration: 45-70 minutes
2. Structure
* Objective: To check the candidate's knowledge of English grammar.
* Type of Questions: Identify the erroneous words in the sentence. Fill in the blanks using the appropriate word.
* Duration: 15-20 minutes
3. Reading Comprehension and Vocabulary
* Objective: To test the candidate's reading and vocabulary skills.
* Type of Question: Three or four long passages, typically 300 words long are given, and questions based on the content, intent of the author, and ideas inferred from the passage. Generally prior knowledge of the subject under discussion is not necessary to come to the correct answer; though a priori knowledge may help.
* Duration: 70-90 minutes
4. Essay Writing
* Objective: To test the candidate's writing skills
* Type of Question: To write an essay on some general topic, and your position towards it. eg: "Is stem cell research necessary? Explain your stance?"
* Duration: 30 minutes.

The Listening and Structure sections are computer-adaptive, meaning that the difficulty level of each question depends on the correctness of previous responses.